Field Artillery Captain’s Career Course (CCC) Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which is NOT one of the four elements of a Fire Support task?
• Not a type of radar zone?
• Which statement best describes target validation?
• Which term describes the required ammunition supply rate?
• Which of the following is NOT a recon method for RSOP?
• The COA development complete content includes which of the following?
• Which term describes the intended result of a Fire Support task?
• What is target discrimination and why is it important?
• Which reconnaissance and survey task is directly used to improve accuracy of artillery fires?
• Role of FA BN CDR at Brigade at BDE is filled by which role?
• Not a technique for BTRY defense?
• Tactical CPs: How many statements are correct?
• Which elements are part of the Joint Targeting Cycle's overarching framework for targeting?
• In urban fire planning, what does 'limited collateral' imply?
• Which term best describes the specific action to be taken to achieve the purpose of a Fire Support task?
• Paladin reinforcement placement is executed by which element?
• Publication for IPOE?
• How is FA task constructed from BDE?
• An innovative way to solve a problem is to use which approach?
• What is Counter-battery fire and what information is typically required to execute it?
• Which of the following is a key component of running estimates?
• What is the role of a target validation check in the ROE clearance-to-fire process?
• What term describes the adjustment of target data after initial planning?
• Which 155mm munition is used to create obscuration and smoke screens?
• Compare the responsibilities of the Fire Support Officer (FSO) with the Fire Support Coordinator (FSCOORD).
• Which RXL ensures FA fire direction flows with higher echelons?
• Which statement best describes deliberate fires?
• Which is a COA screening criterion name to ensure a COA can be compared?
• Which option is not a forward observer control option?
• FA support overlay includes
• In ACM separation between fixed-wing and rotary-wing assets, which term denotes the altitude used for coordination?
• Which of the following is a task of C2 WFF?
• Which term denotes the level where coordination occurs for ACM separation?
• What does the acronym D3A stand for?
• The COA development process is associated with which acronym?
• What term describes the process of refining a target that has been lined out on the Target List?
• Which doctrine is associated with the sustainment framework?
• Which item is not a product in Annex D?
• Which sequence correctly lists the four levels of war from broadest to narrowest?
• The doctrine reference for leadership is which publication?
• What criterion is used to assess changes in endstate?
• What is the method of control used for radar operations?
• What is the primary role of the Fire Direction Center (FDC) in a fire mission?
• Which option represents a leadership domain focusing on personal development?
• Which item is expressed as rounds per weapon per day?
• Not a counterfire imperative.
• Which publication is referenced for FA Cannon BTRY?
• FSCOORD is the role of which function?
• How do weather conditions affect ballistic calculations?
• FA BN staff always conducts IPOE when BDE IPOE is conducted.
• True or False: Mission Analysis can be skipped.
• AGADAP is associated with which activity?
• Which of the following is a component of UVDDLA?
• Fires IC RXL must include which element?
• What term describes the quantity of ammunition allocated after a rest period?
• Which target effect definition corresponds to renders ineffective until reconstituted?
• Which concept is used to describe time and space?
• What is essential when coordinating with airpower to maximize effects and avoid fratricide?
• Differentiate between weapons-free and coordinated fire in FSCMs.
• Which term is NOT a COA analysis method?
• Recommended PAA for HIMARS
• Which practices are essential to maintain safety when conducting live-fire exercises near friendly troops?
• FA certification equals live fire.
• In the MDMP process for IPOE, which step is Step 2?
• What is the Army's primary targeting method?
• Why is risk management essential in fire planning?
• In artillery coordination, what does FSCM stand for and what is its primary purpose?
• Which is not a type of counseling?
• Which of the following is NOT a key component of running estimates?
• How is clearance-to-fire determined under ROE?
• Which term is not an occupation type?
• Which is not an element of control?
• What doctrine reference covers leadership?
• EFST doctrine is published in which field manual?
• M2, fires, sustainment, protection and ____
• ____ is any area controlled that provides advantage.
• Which term determines quantities and types of ammunition?
• Which of the following are types of COA analysis methods?
• Which term refers to a command post that functions across functional areas?
• Which publication is listed as the reference for training?
• Which of the following is a recon method for RSOP?
• Which is an example of an element of command?
• Which description best matches Battle Damage Assessment (BDA)?
• The geographic area a commander influences is called?
• Which 155mm munition provides night-target illumination?
• Which RXL ensures the battalion OPORD syncs with the M2 order?
• Which color indicates maximum training in the cycle?
• Which of the following is an Army support relationship term?
• Which is the reference for mission command?
• In the fires planning and execution cycle, what is the step immediately after planning and coordinating fires?
• In fire support communications, RXL is an acronym for which concept?
• What is the difference between the High Payoff Target List (HPTL) and the Low Payoff Target List (LPTL)?
• Which item is an example of a measure of performance?
• Which element is not part of an echelon sustainment train?
• A fire mission briefing should include which elements?
• What is command and control?
• CDRs drive UVDDLA; what is the first item?
• Which option correctly lists the four types of aircraft separation?
• Explain the role of a Joint Fire Observer (JFO) in the targeting and fires process.
• Which sequence correctly lists the four steps of the Army Operations Process?
• Mutual trust, shared understanding, _____, mission order, etc.
• Outline the major stages of the Fires planning and execution cycle.
• In the MDMP IPOE context, which step involves Mission Analysis?
• Which term is NOT used to describe a TGT effect?
• ADP 3-90 is the doctrinal reference for which topics?
• Which target effect definition corresponds to renders out of action, 30%?
• Current and projected MET levels include which combination?
• PMESII-PT eight domains include which?
• In military operational art, the term for the source of power to be protected and attacked is what?
• What framework is used to exercise mission command?
• What is the role of Meteorological data (MET) in artillery planning?
• For ACM separation of fixed and rotary assets, what term describes the coordination level?
• What best describes the tactical configuration for MLRS/HIMARS?
• A thorough safety briefing and risk assessment addresses which elements?
• What is a Free Fire Area (FFA) and why is it used?
• What does AFATDS stand for?
• PMESII-PT helps analyze which environment?
• Which of the following sets correctly lists three common Fire Support Coordination Measures (FSCMs) and their purposes?
• What is AFATDS and its primary function?
• UVDDLA last component
• Not a TGT characteristic?
• Which option lists the four types of aircraft separation?
• COA comparison evaluation criteria are created in which phase?
• Which term describes monitoring effects and accuracy during a fire mission?
• Which 155mm munition is used for area targets via dispersal of submunitions?
• Which FSCM allows fires without coordination within a defined geographic area?
• Which role is responsible for coordinating fires across units and echelons to ensure deconfliction?
• Which term describes a target effect that disrupts tempo?
• Distinguish between direct fire and indirect fire.
• ____ are mixed ammo packages for complete rounds
• Which terms describe the Army's support relationships?
• In FA operations, the location block of TTLODAC within FA BN is most closely associated with which term?
• How does the Joint Targeting Cycle (JTC) integrate with Army targeting processes?
• Element of operational art?
• What is the primary purpose of a high-explosive (HE) round?
• What is the function of a Fire Support Coordination Line (FSCL)?
• Which two elements are NOT part of WFF?
• What is the correct order of the D3A targeting sequence?
• Which target effect definition corresponds to upset tempo?
• In indirect fire, which parameters are adjusted to align with the target location?
• Which is an element of command?
• Which of the following are attributes and competencies of a leader?
• FA units can only reinforce like units.
• Doctrine for EFSTs is described in which field manual?
• Which is not a principle of good writing?
• Paladin unit reinforcing—who places it?
• How do artillery assets coordinate with airpower in Joint Fires?
• Operational Variables are described by which acronym?
• What are the essential elements of an effective fire mission briefing?
• Which COA screening criterion ensures a COA can be distinguished from others during comparison?
• What is the primary role of mission command in artillery operations?
• Which of the following is listed as a type of military brief?
• What is a Kill Box and how is it used?
• Which of the following is listed as an attribute or competency of a leader?
• Density altitude affects ballistic calculations by...
• Differentiate between a time fuze and a point-detonating fuze.
• A Fire Support Annex (FSA) typically includes which elements?
• What is the purpose of the Low Payoff Target List (LPTL)?
• Which publication outlines Multidomain Operations (MDO)?
• METTTC is used to identify what in mission planning?
• How does Joint ISR support integrate with field artillery fires?
• Losing the target contributes to friendly success. True or False?
• COA development begins after which step?
• What are Fire Support Coordination Measures (FSCMs) used for?
• Current and projected MET levels include which of the following?
• ____ is analyzing a problem.
• Which PMESII-PT category represents the temporal dimension?
• If shooter is listed, how is FA task constructed from BDE?
• Observer instructions in a fire mission briefing specify which of the following?
• What are the general principles of Rules of Engagement (ROE) as they apply to fires?
• COP in this material is defined as which concept?
• What criterion is used to assess friendly action?
• Not a decisive action task?
• Which option correctly lists the three leadership domains?
• Not required consideration for observers?
• The four-color cycle green, amber, red, green maximize training.
• What is the method of A/S control?
• Offense and Defense reference?
• Which methods are used by observers to verify target locations for accuracy?
• Should fire support assets be kept in reserve?
• Which element is essential in a fire mission briefing in addition to target location and timing?
• Which statement about BN FDC is true?
• Which document is cited as the reference for FA Cannon BTRY?
• Which list is used to identify targets that have a decisive effect on mission success?
• Which term describes fires delivered without delay in response to a call for fire?
• The statement 'Components of the endstate are FETC' is true.
• In urban terrain, what is the importance of stable observation during fires?
• Which 155mm munition is primarily used for general purpose high-explosive fires?
• Which Army doctrine addresses the principle of sustainment?
• What is the primary purpose of the High Payoff Target List (HPTL) in targeting?
• Deep, close, rear describe which concept?
• Describe the process of observation and adjustment in indirect fire.
• What is an airburst munition and why is it preferred?
• What is the primary function of the Fire Support Team (FIST) at the company level?
• What is the role of a DPICM/cluster munition and its limitations?
• Which of the following is NOT part of UVDDLA?
• Which term refers to measuring distance/corrections to refine aim during a fire mission?
• The task of a Fire Support task is defined as the objective, in any form or function. True or False?
• During COA development, the complete content contains
• What is a Fire Support Area (FSA) and how does it affect fire planning?
• Why is cross-checking target locations with known reference points important for accuracy?
• In what ways does the Fires planning process contribute to effective mission command?
• Which statement best exemplifies analytical thinking in problem solving?
• What is the difference between the Fire Support Annex (FSA) and the Operations Order (OPORD) in planning?
• Which measures help minimize collateral damage during fires in populated areas?
• What is weaponeering and why is it important?
• BN FDC performs ____
• EFSTs are always found in the mission statement. True or False?
• What is the difference between spotting and observation in fire missions?
• How does the Fires process support overall mission command and maneuver?
• Which publication is used for IPOE in the material?
• Which statement best describes saturation fires?
• Which is a PMESII-PT domain?
• What is the purpose of High-Priority Target List (HPTL) and Low-Priority Target List (LPTL) in target prioritization?
• Which statement is correct about leadership doctrine?
• What defines 'danger close' in artillery operations and who authorizes it?
• UVDDLA first component
• What does High-Priority Targeting stand for?
• Which is not a PMESII-PT domain?
• Which statement describes what the Fire Direction Center does when observers report deviation?
• Which acronym is an endstate component?
• IPOE stands for which phrase?